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Diezel
28th October 2003, 05:14 PM
I listened to an interesting piece on NPR today. The govenment of France seems to be ready to kill one of their National Holidays. They will make everyone work that day and take all money made and give it to the poor and disabled (IIRC.)

That isn't so interesting. What was interesting was to find out that France is on a 35 hour work week! And they have something like 14 National Holidays they are off of work!

Now, to me, this is astounding. In the US, we have a standard 40 hour work week. And most people on get only 6-8 National Holidays off (New Year's Day, Memorial Day, 4th of July, Labor Day, Thanksgiving, Christmas, plus eve's of some of those.)

Now, that varies from place to place. Our standard work week is 50 hours (yes, we do get overtime), with 60+ hour weeks not uncommon. But I also work for a company that gives us 11 holiday days off (New Year's Eve, New Year's Day, Ash Friday, Memorial Day, 4th of July, Labor Day, Thanksgiving Day and the day after, Christmas Eve and Christmas Day, and a floating holiday, taken in conjuction with another holdiay to make a 4 day weekend.) We also only get 5 days of vacation after 1 year of work, 10 days after 2 years, 15 days after 5 years and 20 days after 20 years.

Anyway, I was amazed at the discussion of France's work week. From what I gather, the French government has been angry that the country is not working enough, but the people do not want to put in any more time at work.

But is there a point where you have TOO much free time? Some of the French workers actually think so, saying they don't work enough to make enough money to do anything with all the free time they have. I don't think this is a majority opinion over there, but it make sense to me.

So, I was just wondering what everyone's work schedules are like. Personally, I would like to work a 40 hour week. 50 starts to grind on me and lately all my vacation time has been eaten up on everything BUT a real vacation. But I think a 35 hour week would be too little. It is obvious they can't pay me the same types of wages for that little work, so I wouldn't want to cut back on my lifestyle, just to have 5 more free hours per week.

Do you think a country can maintain a strong economic force and producer, while only working 35 hours a week?

We are moving to (hell, we are) a global economy; should there be some type of International Standards on work hours? (we work with many international companies and I have meet many Europeans working over here that just can't get used to the long hours they have to work)

Diezel
28th October 2003, 05:23 PM
After doing some more checking (which I should have done before posting in the first place :(), they will ear-mark the money for the elderly, in response to the deaths caused by their recent heat-wave. http://www.globalaging.org/elderrights/world/paris.html

And they only have 11 national holidays, not 14 like I cited above.

geni
28th October 2003, 05:27 PM
EU law states a maxium of 48 hours a week and at least 2 weeks paid holiday a year (the second bit does not apply to thoes under 18). As you have heard France has reduced its working week still further. Weather this can be sustained remains to be seen.

fishbob
28th October 2003, 05:27 PM
Don't most U.S. Federal, State, and other government employees get about 20 holidays per year?

And is that 35 hours working each week or 35 hours at work?

geni
28th October 2003, 05:34 PM
Originally posted by fishbob
Don't most U.S. Federal, State, and other government employees get about 20 holidays per year?

And is that 35 hours working each week or 35 hours at work?

It should be 35 hours at work but I suspect in some cases in means 35hours of pay

Cain
28th October 2003, 05:39 PM
I posted the following on these very forums not long ago! It received exactly zero replies, but one european did PM me to ask if I was Swedish.

Work Week Woes 4/12/03

This op-ed appeared in yesterday's edition of the New York Times:

http://www.nytimes.com/2003/04/12/opinion/12DEGR.html (Reg. Required)

A few snippets:

According to the International Labor Organization, Americans now work 1,978 hours annually, a full 350 hours — nine weeks — more than Western Europeans. The average American actually worked 199 hours more in 2000 than he or she did in 1973, a period during which worker productivity per hour nearly doubled.

What happened? In effect, the United States as a society took all of its increases in labor productivity in the form of money and stuff instead of time. Of course, we didn't all get the money; the very poor earn even less in real terms than they did then, and the largest share of the increase went to the richest Americans.

Working ourselves to death?

The harmful effects of working more hours are being felt in many areas of society. Stress is a leading cause of heart disease and weakened immune systems. Consumption of fast foods and lack of time for exercise has led to an epidemic of obesity and diabetes. Many parents complain that they do not have enough time to spend with their children, much less become involved in their community. Worker productivity declines during the latter part of long work shifts.

And finally a comparison to one of those "socialist" Scandinavian countries:

By contrast, over the past 30 years, Europeans have made a different choice — to live simpler, more balanced lives and work fewer hours. The average Norwegian, for instance, works 29 percent less than the average American — 14 weeks per year — yet his average income is only 16 percent less. Western Europeans average five to six weeks of paid vacation a year; we average two.

None of this is very surprising, but it's the second most e-mailed article from the nation's paper of record today. Norway pulled out the top spot on the United Nation's yearly development index (the U.S. placed sixth). In Sweden, twenty-five percent of workers won't even show up on a normal day. Also in Sweden, mothers get 360 days of paid leave (something like 100% of their normal paycheck), plust another 90 days at (I'm not at all certain) 50%.

Needless to say, the country isn't overwhelemed with welfare mothers popping out children as quickly as possible. In fact, I believe the population trend is moving steadily downard, which is consistent with most Northern European countries.

Diezel
28th October 2003, 05:48 PM
Originally posted by geni
EU law states a maxium of 48 hours a week and at least 2 weeks paid holiday a year (the second bit does not apply to thoes under 18). As you have heard France has reduced its working week still further. Weather this can be sustained remains to be seen.

What is that standard EU work week then? (If France's is lower)

Diezel
28th October 2003, 05:52 PM
Originally posted by fishbob
Don't most U.S. Federal, State, and other government employees get about 20 holidays per year?

And is that 35 hours working each week or 35 hours at work?

Well, here is a list of all US National Holdiays, but I know they don't get them all off. I'm not sure which ones they do and don't: http://www.villas4all.com/american-holidays.php

And I am almost positive it is 35 hours at work, like our 40.

Actually, I am at work more than that, because I have a 1/2 unpaid lunch. So I work 7:00am-5:30pm, which is actually 10 1/2 hours a day.

Tony
28th October 2003, 06:08 PM
I think the american work week is too long.

Diezel
28th October 2003, 06:16 PM
Originally posted by Cain
I posted the following on these very forums not long ago! It received exactly zero replies, but one european did PM me to ask if I was Swedish.

Don't worry, I've started tons of threads that have received no replies. Actually, I started one topic 3 times, over the course of two months, with 0 replies each time. I guess nobody wanted to talk about it! :(

I haven't read the NYT article yet, but there is a glaring problem right from the start. They state "the very poor earn even less in real terms than they did then, and the largest share of the increase went to the richest Americans." I'm not sure what standards they are using, but everything I have seen does not come to this conclusion.

During that time, the "poor" have elevated themselves to a lifestyle only previously enjoyed by the lower middle-class, or even the middle-class (car, multiple TVs with satelitte hook-ups, etc...) And the amount of millionaires increased greatly, meaning many middle and upper middle class people became "rich".

I will read the article in full, but just that sentence has my BS/Biased Slant detector going off. I have heard that argument 100 times, yet once you dig deeper, it falls apart:

"The rich are getting richer and the poor are getting poorer!"

No they're not, the rich are getting richer and the poor are getting richer.

"Well, maybe the poor are a little better off then they were, but the rich are getting richer at a much faster pace than the poor are getting richer!"

So?


Working ourselves to death?

I agree. That is why I ask "What is the best work week? The best mix of work and free time?"

I don't know the answer to it. It lies somewhere between 50+ hours and 35 hours.

And finally a comparison to one of those "socialist" Scandinavian countries:

I have heard this before. I will have to look at a few things, but I am weary of the way they go between their terms. Notice above the mention the poor "earn less in real terms", but then the give us a hard firgue for Swedish income (16% less)? Why do this? And what does "in real terms" mean?

This is a common method of creative writing that lets you play with numbers. In the above case, they may have found that the very poor are making more than they use to, so they try to slant it the way they want. What does "in real terms" mean? Does it mean buying power? Quality of life? Actually, it is meaningless, without any qualifier.

Yet they also come back with the 16% figure for Sweden. Why give us a figure? Because 16% doesn't look like much. But they don't tell us if we have equal buying power for the same money. They don't equate tax structures. They don't equate anything. They just give us a raw figure.

Tactics like this make me weary...



None of this is very surprising, but it's the second most e-mailed article from the nation's paper of record today. Norway pulled out the top spot on the United Nation's yearly development index (the U.S. placed sixth). In Sweden, twenty-five percent of workers won't even show up on a normal day. Also in Sweden, mothers get 360 days of paid leave (something like 100% of their normal paycheck), plust another 90 days at (I'm not at all certain) 50%.

Needless to say, the country isn't overwhelemed with welfare mothers popping out children as quickly as possible. In fact, I believe the population trend is moving steadily downard, which is consistent with most Northern European countries.

Well, the NYT being the "paper of record" is very questionable at this time. And I think I have shown they are not as unbiased as they portray themselves. I'm not saying what they are reporting is false, I am just saying they have used some dubious tactics to lead a casual reader to a conclusion they want.

As for welare babies: This is a problem I see in all of these types of cross-cultural/International studies. While it might be true, not all the same cultural factors are at work in both places. And when it comes to things like welfare, culture determines the use/abuse more than any other factor. Like many other things, just because it works in one place, doesn't mean it will work in another.

Ashi
28th October 2003, 06:27 PM
35 hours a week. Wow!

I am usually at work about 70 hours a week and this doesn't include the work I am required to do at home. My personal record (so far) was 128 hours in one week. I get the standard holidays now plus 3 weeks vacation so it isn't that bad. If I only worked 35 hours a week my company would have to hire 2 additional people just to get my job done. Overall we would have to triple our entire work force.

Geez, I've worked more than 35 hours straight at one time. I guess it all depends on what type of work you do.

Tony
28th October 2003, 06:30 PM
Originally posted by Ashi
35 hours a week. Wow!

I am usually at work about 70 hours a week and this doesn't include the work I am required to do at home. My personal record (so far) was 128 hours in one week. I get the standard holidays now plus 3 weeks vacation so it isn't that bad. If I only worked 35 hours a week my company would have to hire 2 additional people just to get my job done. Overall we would have to triple our entire work force.

Geez, I've worked more than 35 hours straight at one time. I guess it all depends on what type of work you do.

What do you do?

Diezel
28th October 2003, 06:37 PM
According to the Census Bureau, no matter what the NYT was using as its standard when it says "are poorer in real terms", they are wrong.

The Census Bureau, in their summary on income over the last 50 years concludes that poverty is down almost across the board. The file is a .pdf and is mostly graphs, so I took a snippet of the contents:

Poverty
4.1 Poverty for Most Races Has Declined Since 1959 .................................................. .................................................. ......... 45
4.2 Poverty Among the Elderly Has Been on the Decline, While It Has Increased for Children ......................................... 46
4.3 Single-Parent Families Have the Highest Poverty Rate .................................................. .................................................. .. 47

They base their conclusions on a real standard "poverty". Well, it may not be a real standard, but it is a standard. They determine what "living in poverty" is and judged each year according to that standard.

So it seems the Census Bureau is saying the very poor are actually doing better off, seeing as there are less very poor than there was.

I'm reading the report as I post this, so I will find better data as I go, but you can look at it all here: http://www.census.gov/prod/3/98pubs/p60-203.pdf

Edited to add:

Go to page 64 of that document to understand their definition of "poverty", then check out figure A-1.

Ashi
28th October 2003, 06:40 PM
I am currently working as a desk engineer for a large oilfield services company. We work offshore in the Gulf of Mexico.

I used to work in the field as a supervisor (that was where the 128 hours a week came from). In the field we usually work 24 hour a day, 7 days a week, no holidays off. The only things that really stop work in the Gulf of Mexico are very bad hurricanes or getting the job is done. It is not unusual to work extremely long shifts (+30 hours) and it isn't unusual to be offshore for 3-4 weeks at a time.

Suddenly
28th October 2003, 06:52 PM
When I was doing corporate law, I was expected to bill at a minimum 1800 hours a year. It takes about 1.5 hours to bill an hour, so were looking at 2700 hours. Add in the odd extra task and we get to an even 3K. I'm afraid to do the math.

All I know is that there were weeks when a partner or two had a trial, and I'd be in the noon Wednesday meeting and realize that I had already billed 50 hours that week (Sun -Sat.). Good news, as long as I hit my quotas they didn't care how much vacation or personal time I took. Ha Ha Ha.

Then I went half crazy.

So I got into public defense work. My current job, where I only post conviction proceedings like appeals and habeas corpus petitions, I put in an 40 hour week, come and go as I please, and I can do work at home. 16 days vacation, 10 days sick time, and all, and I mean all, state and local holidays. Of course I wind up visiting senic places like the Maximum security prison, and get to be in enclosed spaces with murderers and worse.

I took a huge pay cut, but calculated by the hour I'm actually making more.

Cain
28th October 2003, 06:58 PM
Diezel, before replying I'll say again that this appeared on the op-ed page. So, yes, it takes a position. The author does not work for the TIMES.

Originally posted by Diezel
I haven't read the NYT article yet, but there is a glaring problem right from the start. They state "the very poor earn even less in real terms than they did then, and the largest share of the increase went to the richest Americans." I'm not sure what standards they are using, but everything I have seen does not come to this conclusion.

I do not see anything controversial with these statements in the piece.


"The rich are getting richer and the poor are getting poorer!"

No they're not, the rich are getting richer and the poor are getting richer.


"Well, maybe the poor are a little better off then they were, but the rich are getting richer at a much faster pace than the poor are getting richer!"

So?


Here's the thing: people, average people, are working harder and longer, but they're getting a smaller part of the pie. CEO salaries, as well know, has surged in the last few decades. I do not have precise figures off the top of my head, but 1960 CEOs made, what, 40 times their employees? Now they make over 500 times?


I have heard this before. I will have to look at a few things, but I am weary of the way they go between their terms. Notice above the mention the poor "earn less in real terms", but then the give us a hard firgue for Swedish income (16% less)? Why do this? And what does "in real terms" mean?

In real terms means controlling for inflation and hours worked. I'm not sure what you're getting at on the 16% figure. The author says they (Scandinavians) work 29% less and only make 16% less, which suggests, rather directly, that they make more money per hour.

This is a common method of creative writing that lets you play with numbers. In the above case, they may have found that the very poor are making more than they use to, so they try to slant it the way they want. What does "in real terms" mean? Does it mean buying power? Quality of life? Actually, it is meaningless, without any qualifier.

On the contrary, I see nothing creative or deceptive here.

Yet they also come back with the 16% figure for Sweden. Why give us a figure? Because 16% doesn't look like much. But they don't tell us if we have equal buying power for the same money. They don't equate tax structures. They don't equate anything. They just give us a raw figure.

No, again, the 16% stat clarifies the 29% stat (which pertains to fewer hours worked).

Pollsters have regularly asked Swedes if they would work more hours to make more money. They consistently say they prefer leisure to higher income. But hey, I'm sure there are more than few Scandinavians who browse these forums and can educate us all with their first hand experience.

The Census Bureau, in their summary on income over the last 50 years concludes that poverty is down almost across the board. The file is a .pdf and is mostly graphs, so I took a snippet of the contents:

The article's starting year is 1973. Comparing the last *50* years is apples to oranges.

There's something slightly off topic that I want to add. The government's standard for determining poverty, most economists agree, understates the problem. Agencies want to update the criteria, but no sane administration will allow poverty to "increase" on their watch, so it gets blocked. Comparing poverty rates in the United States to Scandnavian countries is instructive.

UnrepentantSinner
28th October 2003, 07:16 PM
Originally posted by fishbob
Don't most U.S. Federal, State, and other government employees get about 20 holidays per year?

And is that 35 hours working each week or 35 hours at work?

No, it's closer to 12.

But don't forget, the banks get those same days off so it's not just them lazy byurohkrats.

Of course I write this in a 48 hour week after working two 84s (make that an 84 and an 85 for the time change on Saturday night).

corplinx
28th October 2003, 07:23 PM
The problem with the government acting like a labor union (as in France) is that people will elect whoever promises more paid time off and less work hours.

That, and once you grant time off via government law it will never be repealed since every whiner will protest.


Bad, bad, bad..........

a_unique_person
28th October 2003, 08:12 PM
Originally posted by Ashi
I am currently working as a desk engineer for a large oilfield services company. We work offshore in the Gulf of Mexico.

I used to work in the field as a supervisor (that was where the 128 hours a week came from). In the field we usually work 24 hour a day, 7 days a week, no holidays off. The only things that really stop work in the Gulf of Mexico are very bad hurricanes or getting the job is done. It is not unusual to work extremely long shifts (+30 hours) and it isn't unusual to be offshore for 3-4 weeks at a time.

That is an incredibly dangerous work practice, and one that would not be allowed in Australia. I have read that there is no difference in your reactions and judgement between suffering lack of sleep and being over 0.05% alcohol.

This is one of the reasons I fear the Libertarian type of politicians. (And even if they don't win any seats, they do have a major influence on the Conservative political parties).

Working conditions will go down the tube and we will mostly be reduced to wage slaves. As Shanek says, there is no level playing field.

a_unique_person
28th October 2003, 08:16 PM
Originally posted by Diezel


Don't worry, I've started tons of threads that have received no replies. Actually, I started one topic 3 times, over the course of two months, with 0 replies each time. I guess nobody wanted to talk about it! :(



You shouldn't start threads with titles like "Do You Find My Bald Head Sexy" then.

shuize
28th October 2003, 08:20 PM
Originally posted by Suddenly
When I was doing corporate law, I was expected to bill at a minimum 1800 hours a year. It takes about 1.5 hours to bill an hour, so were looking at 2700 hours. Add in the odd extra task and we get to an even 3K. I'm afraid to do the math.

All I know is that there were weeks when a partner or two had a trial, and I'd be in the noon Wednesday meeting and realize that I had already billed 50 hours that week (Sun -Sat.). Good news, as long as I hit my quotas they didn't care how much vacation or personal time I took. Ha Ha Ha.

Then I went half crazy.

So I got into public defense work. My current job, where I only post conviction proceedings like appeals and habeas corpus petitions, I put in an 40 hour week, come and go as I please, and I can do work at home. 16 days vacation, 10 days sick time, and all, and I mean all, state and local holidays. Of course I wind up visiting senic places like the Maximum security prison, and get to be in enclosed spaces with murderers and worse.

I took a huge pay cut, but calculated by the hour I'm actually making more.

I know billing 1800 hours a year takes a hell of a lot of work, but I think your firm was realitively easy-going. Most big firms want you to bill at least 2000+ if you expect have any hope of making partner ....

And that explains why we don't often hear the opinions of corporate attorneys on this board.

Diezel
28th October 2003, 08:31 PM
Originally posted by Cain
Diezel, before replying I'll say again that this appeared on the op-ed page. So, yes, it takes a position. The author does not work for the TIMES.

I understand that, but the way you emphasised it being from "the nation's paper of record", I wanted it to be clear that this wasn't a scholarly work.

I do not see anything controversial with these statements in the piece.

We will have to agree to disagree here.

Here's the thing: people, average people, are working harder and longer, but they're getting a smaller part of the pie. CEO salaries, as well know, has surged in the last few decades. I do not have precise figures off the top of my head, but 1960 CEOs made, what, 40 times their employees? Now they make over 500 times?

Here's the crux and exactly what I said the argument would turn into. Look at my statement above - why does it matter how much the top people are making? Who cares?

The only people that care are the people that feel there should be some type of equity of incomes. I do not.

The poor are getting richer, the middle-class are getting richer, the rich are getting richer. So what that they are doing it at different paces?

Equality of opportunity, not of outcome. Almost everyone is better of now then they were, across the board. I don't buy the "getting their slice of the pie" argument.

Actually, exactly how much slice of pie is each person "entitled"?

In real terms means controlling for inflation and hours worked.

Do they explain and qualify that in the article (I don't want to register again, so I will try to read it at work where I have my password for it.) I didn't see any explaination for what they were defining.

I'm not sure what you're getting at on the 16% figure. The author says they (Scandinavians) work 29% less and only make 16% less, which suggests, rather directly, that they make more money per hour.

I'm saying the figure means very little without different information.

I can tell you that workers in the Detroit area make 20% more in income than the rest of the country. What does that really mean in the context of wealth and quality of living? Nothing. Because what I didn't tell you is that the cost of living in the Detroit area is 25% more than the rest of the country. (numbers used for the purpose of example only, pulled from my a**)

The numbers are deceptive, because they are trying to portray something they don't. The numbers tell us nothing about the buying power of that income.

On the contrary, I see nothing creative or deceptive here.

Again, we will have to agree to disagree. Buying power or quality (or maybe luxury) of life is a much better comparision than income. We can't even compare incomes between areas within a state, let alone the US. But here, the author wants us to draw a conclusion based on an income comparison between two countries. I don't buy it.

No, again, the 16% stat clarifies the 29% stat (which pertains to fewer hours worked).

See above my objections to those stats.

Pollsters have regularly asked Swedes if they would work more hours to make more money. They consistently say they prefer leisure to higher income. But hey, I'm sure there are more than few Scandinavians who browse these forums and can educate us all with their first hand experience.

I'm not sure what this proves.

The article's starting year is 1973. Comparing the last *50* years is apples to oranges.

No, it is comparing 30 apples to 30 apples, with 20 older apples to look back on for further consideration. Look at the document I linked, all the years I represented. You can go back to 1973 on all the charts and work forward. But you will find that poverty is down, incomes are up, across the board.

There's something slightly off topic that I want to add. The government's standard for determining poverty, most economists agree, understates the problem. Agencies want to update the criteria, but no sane administration will allow poverty to "increase" on their watch, so it gets blocked. Comparing poverty rates in the United States to Scandnavian countries is instructive.

But at least it is a standard that we can measure by. And by that standard, poverty is down and the poor are living the lives of the middle-class of 30 years ago.

And, again, there are 1000s, if not tens of 1000s more millionaires today than there was 30 years ago.

Diezel
28th October 2003, 08:33 PM
Originally posted by a_unique_person


You shouldn't start threads with titles like "Do You Find My Bald Head Sexy" then.

I had one reply to that thread - yours! ;)

Diezel
28th October 2003, 08:51 PM
Originally posted by Suddenly

I took a huge pay cut, but calculated by the hour I'm actually making more.

I must add one more thing here, then I'm off to bed and I'll catch up in the morning...

This statement means a lot. Not so much the by the hour statement (most people get over-time), but that he took a pay cut.

Yes, Americans work more. Yes, most Americans feel they must work more. But actually, most Americans could work less and still be financially stable.

Yep, they don't have to work all those hours. The reason they think they do, is because of all the things they think they have to have - multiple vehicles, multiple TVS, VCRS, DVD players, computers, etc.... Most of these things are not needs. They don't have to have them, but in American culture, the disinction is no longer there. We view them as needs, hence we need to work to pay for them.

Most Americans could cut back on their lifestyle and work less hours with no problem. The cultural difference in European countries may be such that they don't feel they need all these luxuries (and I believe many Europeans find our attitudes about what we need silly.)

Personally, I know all of this, but still want all these things, so I work more hours.

a_unique_person
28th October 2003, 09:46 PM
Originally posted by Diezel


I had one reply to that thread - yours! ;)

I hope I said "no".

Cain
28th October 2003, 11:21 PM
I do not think I *emphasized* "paper of record." The point was thati this newspaper has many, many readers and they're apparently interested in the article (since it was the second most e-mailed that particular day).

Originally posted by Diezel
Here's the crux and exactly what I said the argument would turn into. Look at my statement above - why does it matter how much the top people are making? Who cares?

The only people that care are the people that feel there should be some type of equity of incomes. I do not.

The poor are getting richer, the middle-class are getting richer, the rich are getting richer. So what that they are doing it at different paces?

I perfectly understand what you're saying; I used to be a Libertarian. But why not put in the other direction: let's say poor people *do* get poorer. Big deal, right? They're already "richer" (narrowly defined) than most people in the world, and nearly all people in human history. You're missing a fundamental moral value: that wealth is socially created, and the people responsible for the gains ought to share in it.

Equality of opportunity, not of outcome. Almost everyone is better of now then they were, across the board. I don't buy the "getting their slice of the pie" argument.

There are spillover effects; externalities. For instance, I don't see how the daughter of a single mother working two of those jobs has an equal opportunity, but whatever.

Equality of opportunity is a nearly unimpeachable moral-political value... but it doesn't appear consistent with the rest of your views.

Actually, exactly how much slice of pie is each person "entitled"?

I despise that word "entitled" because it gives off the wrong impression. People have been working harder and it's sort of intuitive that they share those gains. Instead wages have stagnated.

Do they explain and qualify that in the article (I don't want to register again, so I will try to read it at work where I have my password for it.) I didn't see any explaination for what they were defining.

Ah, so you'll read it while on the job :) Well, the NYTIMES became stingy awhile ago and you'll only be able to access the abstract (unless you want to pay 3 dollars or whatever). I saved the original and I can PM it to you.

In real terms almost always means holding for inflation.


I can tell you that workers in the Detroit area make 20% more in income than the rest of the country. What does that really mean in the context of wealth and quality of living? Nothing. Because what I didn't tell you is that the cost of living in the Detroit area is 25% more than the rest of the country. (numbers used for the purpose of example only, pulled from my a**)

That's also a well-known shortcoming of the poverty line. I'm not sure what you're comparing here, though: US living now compared to living 25 years ago; or now compared to our european counterparts.

Again, we will have to agree to disagree. Buying power or quality (or maybe luxury) of life is a much better comparision than income. We can't even compare incomes between areas within a state, let alone the US. But here, the author wants us to draw a conclusion based on an income comparison between two countries. I don't buy it.

The author's also only given 700 words to write the article. You make it sound like he's consciously trying to deceive you.

From the bottom of the article: John de Graaf, co-author of "Affluenza: The All-Consuming Epidemic," is national coordinator of Take Back Your Time Day.

You can probably find more conclusive infomration there.

I'm not sure what this proves.


Well, it's just that those europeans don't really care about money all that much. According to the UN's human development index, Sweden outranks the US (as do five other countries).

No, it is comparing 30 apples to 30 apples, with 20 older apples to look back on for further consideration. Look at the document I linked, all the years I represented. You can go back to 1973 on all the charts and work forward. But you will find that poverty is down, incomes are up, across the board.

Since this is only marginally related, I'll post an excerpt from a TIMES article on the poverty line:

The problem is that the official definition of poverty no longer provides an accurate picture of material deprivation. The current measure was created 40 years ago by a government statistician, Mollie Orshansky, and hasn't much changed since. "Anyone who thinks we ought to change it is perfectly right," Ms. Orshansky told an interviewer in 2001.

The current procedure takes the 1963 poverty thresholds for each given family size devised by Ms. Orshansky and updates them for inflation. For example, if the income of a family of four with two adults and two children fell below $18,244 last year, they were counted as poor by the bureau. Simple, yes, but there are two basic problems.

First, it fails to capture important changes in consumption patterns since the early 1960's. The research underlying the original thresholds was based on food expenditures by low-income families in 1955. Since her calculations showed that families then spent about a third of their income on food, Ms. Orshansky multiplied a low-income food budget by three to come up with her poverty line. But even she suspected this method underestimated what it took to meet basic needs, and was thus low-balling the poverty rate.

And it continues on. Again, I can send that to you by request.

And, again, there are 1000s, if not tens of 1000s more millionaires today than there was 30 years ago.

Yeah, yeah, yeah, "the millionaire next door." I'm not impressed. Who was it that said we should judge a society by how it treats its poor? I think that was Gandhi... but I'm way too lazy to look it up.

Hal 2001
29th October 2003, 12:13 AM
Originally posted by corplinx
The problem with the government acting like a labor union (as in France) is that people will elect whoever promises more paid time off and less work hours.

That, and once you grant time off via government law it will never be repealed since every whiner will protest.


Bad, bad, bad..........


That's not necessary true. In fact in France the socialist Prime Minister Lionel Jospin who introduced the 35 hours, lost the following elections to Chiracs (who is more on the right side).

I'm not saying that the 35 hour week is the reason he lost, but It didn't make him win either. Actually as I recall the french were quite divided on the subject.

But you are right, on the fact that it will be hard to get it repealed.

Mss Hal

Jaggy Bunnet
29th October 2003, 04:40 AM
Originally posted by Cain
Well, it's just that those europeans don't really care about money all that much. According to the UN's human development index, Sweden outranks the US (as do five other countries).


But that only proves you can manipulate statistics to show whatever you want. Take a look at the method used to calculate the human development index and you will see that the method of calculation has at least as much impact on ranking as the raw data.

www.undp.org

Bearguin
29th October 2003, 05:30 AM
I work for a company with international offices and one thing I've noticed is the amount of vacation time allowed in Europe. I'd have to dig up the actual info, but where most North American companies start at 2 weeks, I think most of Europe gets 5. And fully paid like ours.

Crossbow
29th October 2003, 05:35 AM
Originally posted by fishbob
Don't most U.S. Federal, State, and other government employees get about 20 holidays per year?

And is that 35 hours working each week or 35 hours at work?

20 holidays per yer I wish!

I have been working for the state for over 10 years and we get 11 paid holidays per year. Sometimes 12, if the governor signs off on it.

BillyTK
29th October 2003, 06:15 AM
Originally posted by Gods Advocate
I work for a company with international offices and one thing I've noticed is the amount of vacation time allowed in Europe. I'd have to dig up the actual info, but where most North American companies start at 2 weeks, I think most of Europe gets 5. And fully paid like ours.
Not strictly true, as it varies from country to country. As Geni posted, "EU law states a maxium of 48 hours a week and at least 2 weeks paid holiday a year".

It's also worth making the point that it's not so much how many hours you're contracted to work, but how much work you get done within that time. Happy staff tend to be more productive than unhappy, stressed staff.

My current contract is for 37.5 hours and any extra hours I work have to be taken as leave, or occassionally, under special circumstances, paid as overtime. Beats one of my earliest jobs when I could work that in two days in an effort to meet printing deadlines.

Diezel
29th October 2003, 06:53 AM
I do not think I *emphasized* "paper of record." The point was that this newspaper has many, many readers and they're apparently interested in the article (since it was the second most e-mailed that particular day).

Ok, but mass appeal does equal truth. ;)

I perfectly understand what you're saying; I used to be a Libertarian. But why not put in the other direction: let's say poor people *do* get poorer. Big deal, right? They're already "richer" (narrowly defined) than most people in the world, and nearly all people in human history. You're missing a fundamental moral value: that wealth is socially created, and the people responsible for the gains ought to share in it.

Even assuming I agree with your moral value (and I don’t, the way you stated it), tell me who is responsible in the gains. Are the very poor responsible in the gains? Have the very poor put in their fair share in creating wealth? Have they put in an equal share? If you want all people to share in the gains equally, shouldn’t they also contribute to the creation of that wealth equally?

Who has contributed more to the creation of wealth in the US in the last 20 years – Bill Gates or a very poor person?

There are spillover effects; externalities. For instance, I don't see how the daughter of a single mother working two of those jobs has an equal opportunity, but whatever.

Well, first – she has the opportunity to not put herself in the position she is in. Second, she has the opportunity to better her position by hard work and promotions, schooling and promotions, skilled trade and promotions, etc…

Equality of opportunity is a nearly unimpeachable moral-political value... but it doesn't appear consistent with the rest of your views.

I don’t understand why you think that.

I despise that word "entitled" because it gives off the wrong impression. People have been working harder and it's sort of intuitive that they share those gains. Instead wages have stagnated.

But they have shared in those gains. But the major complaint is that they haven’t shared in them at the same pace as others. So I ask again, what “share of the pie” does everyone deserve? (see, I eliminated “entitled” ;))

Ah, so you'll read it while on the job :) Well, the NYTIMES became stingy awhile ago and you'll only be able to access the abstract (unless you want to pay 3 dollars or whatever). I saved the original and I can PM it to you.

I would like that, I’ll PM you with my email address.

In real terms almost always means holding for inflation.

Not true. I have often heard “in real terms” used as a way of describing the differences in buying power. Without them telling us what they mean, the term is useless.

That's also a well-known shortcoming of the poverty line. I'm not sure what you're comparing here, though: US living now compared to living 25 years ago; or now compared to our european counterparts.

Neither. I am showing you how using raw data like that is useless in these situations. I am showing you that income is not a good comparison standard, because raw income tells very little about a standard of living. You can have two households with the exact same incomes, but with totally different standards of livings. A household in the Mid-West making $72,000/year would be “well off” with a lot of expendable income. A household in San Francisco making $72,000/year is making just enough to cover its bills (that number is true, from a recent study.) People in the Mid-West made the same income as people in San Francisco, would it mean anything? No.

But I could say that, if I wanted to try to lead you to some conclusion. I wouldn’t be wrong, the numbers are correct. But if I was trying to give an unbiased evaluation of the subject, comparing incomes would not be what I would use. As you can see, comparing incomes is useless.

The author's also only given 700 words to write the article. You make it sound like he's consciously trying to deceive you.

Yes, and in that 700 words he used a comparison of income, which I have shown is a useless, but deceiving comparison. He could have just as well used a better comparison and still stayed within his 700 words.

And I wouldn’t even say he’s consciously trying to do it. I’m sure he has made his decision in the matter and he is just using the evidence he feels best fits his case. The problem is, the evidence he is presenting is not valid to come to the conclusion he does.

[Well, it's just that those europeans don't really care about money all that much. According to the UN's human development index, Sweden outranks the US (as do five other countries).

And I never argued this. What I am arguing is the validity of that particular piece’s substance.

No, it is comparing 30 apples to 30 apples, with 20 older apples to look back on for further consideration. Look at the document I linked, all the years I represented. You can go back to 1973 on all the charts and work forward. But you will find that poverty is down, incomes are up, across the board.

Since this is only marginally related, I'll post an excerpt from a TIMES article on the poverty line:

The problem is that the official definition of poverty no longer provides an accurate picture of material deprivation. The current measure was created 40 years ago by a government statistician, Mollie Orshansky, and hasn't much changed since. "Anyone who thinks we ought to change it is perfectly right," Ms. Orshansky told an interviewer in 2001.

The current procedure takes the 1963 poverty thresholds for each given family size devised by Ms. Orshansky and updates them for inflation. For example, if the income of a family of four with two adults and two children fell below $18,244 last year, they were counted as poor by the bureau. Simple, yes, but there are two basic problems.

First, it fails to capture important changes in consumption patterns since the early 1960's. The research underlying the original thresholds was based on food expenditures by low-income families in 1955. Since her calculations showed that families then spent about a third of their income on food, Ms. Orshansky multiplied a low-income food budget by three to come up with her poverty line. But even she suspected this method underestimated what it took to meet basic needs, and was thus low-balling the poverty rate.

I would have to read it all and get a better feel for the argument, but I already see the start of a flaw when the speak of the changing consumption patterns.

Yeah, yeah, yeah, "the millionaire next door." I'm not impressed. Who was it that said we should judge a society by how it treats its poor? I think that was Gandhi... but I'm way too lazy to look it up.

You’re not impressed that everybody in the country is doing better now than any other time in history?

And you have yet to say how we are treating our poor, while I have showed our poor are living the standards the middle-class where living 30 years ago. I’m not quite sure what it will take to impress you. I have a suspicion, but I don’t want to put a political ideology on you that you have not directly stated. ;)

Diezel
29th October 2003, 08:57 AM
Cain:

Given your views on this subject, I am interested in hearing what you think of this story: PARING DOWN AT COMPUWARE: Karmanos to workers: Get ready for pay cut (http://www.freep.com/money/business/compu29_20031029.htm)

Read the side bar for exactly who is getting cut and by how much.

Cain
29th October 2003, 10:39 AM
Originally posted by Diezel
Even assuming I agree with your moral value (and I don’t, the way you stated it), tell me who is responsible in the gains. Are the very poor responsible in the gains?

The article said people are working longer, right? We do not disagree with that fact, right? We can therefore agree that the poor had a hand in wealth creation, right? Wages have stagnated since 1973. Even up until the 90s wages were below 1979 levels (in spite of Clinton's much touted economic expansion. We can even account for non-wage benefits, where people today have to pay more and more for healthcare). Compare this to the income and wealth of the top 1%, which has surged. Simply sky-rocketed.

We should compare the situtation with other first world countries in the industrialized world. It's not exactly a great scenario.

Have the very poor put in their fair share in creating wealth? Have they put in an equal share? If you want all people to share in the gains equally, shouldn’t they also contribute to the creation of that wealth equally?

It doesn't have to perfectly equal -- that's practically impossible. I'm only saying that working people on the lowest end of the spectrum have received the tiniest sliver.

Who has contributed more to the creation of wealth in the US in the last 20 years – Bill Gates or a very poor person?

This is apples to oranges again and eludes my point.

Well, first – she has the opportunity to not put herself in the position she is in. Second, she has the opportunity to better her position by hard work and promotions, schooling and promotions, skilled trade and promotions, etc…

Certainly... but I do not see the word "equal" here. You insisted on equal opportunity, right?

But they have shared in those gains. But the major complaint is that they haven’t shared in them at the same pace as others. So I ask again, what “share of the pie” does everyone deserve? (see, I eliminated “entitled”)

Yes, I think deserved sounds more appropriate :) I have no golden ratio in mind. This is just an effort to mitigate the social and economic inequalities of capitalism. If you really must know, I'd like to abolish the system altogether, but a good liberal-capitalist moral principle, if you insist, can be found in political philosopher John Rawls: Income should be distributed in a way that's most favorable to the least advantaged.

Most people I know reflexively agree with that in principle (as a value). How to achieve it is another matter. I am perfectly willing to accept that we have different means to accomplish the same goals. This Rawlsian principle -- one of his famous two principles of justice -- is consistent, for instance, with Reagan's tax cut on the very, very wealthy because benefits trickle down. We can disagree as an empirical matter. But if you're arguing -- and some sentences suggest this -- that whatever the market decides is right, then I reject that view entirely.

I hope this is not too confusing or badly worded because I'm in a hurry.

Not true. I have often heard “in real terms” used as a way of describing the differences in buying power. Without them telling us what they mean, the term is useless.

What do you mean "buying power"? No, that goes back to inflation.


Neither. I am showing you how using raw data like that is useless in these situations. I am showing you that income is not a good comparison standard, because raw income tells very little about a standard of living. You can have two households with the exact same incomes, but with totally different standards of livings. A household in the Mid-West making $72,000/year would be “well off” with a lot of expendable income. A household in San Francisco making $72,000/year is making just enough to cover its bills (that number is true, from a recent study.) People in the Mid-West made the same income as people in San Francisco, would it mean anything? No.

I disagree that it's "useless" but I'll emphatically state that it's inconclusive. San Franciso to a mid-west town is a good comparison (because of housing prices in the Bay Area). Or we could compare Chicago to Tokoyo. But I don't think comparisons to the United States today to thirty years ago is all THAT bad.

[snipped a few things]

Again, as far as I know economists make simillar comparisons between income all the time. They're not useless.

And you have yet to say how we are treating our poor, while I have showed our poor are living the standards the middle-class where living 30 years ago. I’m not quite sure what it will take to impress you. I have a suspicion, but I don’t want to put a political ideology on you that you have not directly stated. ;) [/B]

I remember looking at your chart and not seeing how you can claim this. Maybe I didn't understand it. It's only discussing poverty threshold. (A-1, right?) Well, again, you have to control for inflation. If the poverty line today 18,000 dollars for a family of X (or whatever), this doesn't mean they're rich by comparison to a similar family in the early 70s making $5,000. They're the same. Calculating rates of poverty need to be revamped regardless.

I'm not sure what to say on that company, or what it proves. The executives have taken pay cuts (and the workers will pay higher premiums).


_____________________________

But that only proves you can manipulate statistics to show whatever you want. Take a look at the method used to calculate the human development index and you will see that the method of calculation has at least as much impact on ranking as the raw data.

Of course if they changed the method it would have a strong impact. If they put greater value on per capita GDP and less emphasis on mortality rates, then the United States would rank comparitively higher. All indices are open to this criticism. Nonetheless, it's still a fair, in my opinion, approximation (unless you care to disagree with any standard of their's you find absurd).

Diezel
29th October 2003, 11:50 AM
Originally posted by Cain

The article said people are working longer, right? We do not disagree with that fact, right? We can therefore agree that the poor had a hand in wealth creation, right? Wages have stagnated since 1973. Even up until the 90s wages were below 1979 levels (in spite of Clinton's much touted economic expansion. We can even account for non-wage benefits, where people today have to pay more and more for healthcare). Compare this to the income and wealth of the top 1%, which has surged. Simply sky-rocketed.

We should compare the situtation with other first world countries in the industrialized world. It's not exactly a great scenario.

Can you cite references in your stats above? Everything I have seen shows wages going up across the board. Also, what most of these articles that refer to these stats in the fashion you have forget to mention is that inflation has been stagnant throughout much of that period.

Again, buying power is a much better indication of the state of personal economy.

It doesn't have to perfectly equal -- that's practically impossible. I'm only saying that working people on the lowest end of the spectrum have received the tiniest sliver.

And I am saying the working people on the lowest end of the spectrum have also contributed the tiniest sliver.

This is apples to oranges again and eludes my point.

No, it directly addresses your point. You have stated twice now that it isn’t fair that the lowest wage earners aren’t getting their “fair share”. You have side-stepped the issue of what that “fair share” is, so I have asked a direct question on what you feel is fair. Since you feel a person should get a share for their contribution to the wealth in this country, I assume you feel they should receive a share that is equal to their share of contribution.

Or do you feel they deserve a share that is more than their share of contribution?

Certainly... but I do not see the word "equal" here. You insisted on equal opportunity, right?

Ok, then place “equal” in front of all my opportunities. I still feel the same. I will be first to admit that it won’t be as easy for some people, but you there is nothing you can do about that, nor should there be.

If you happen to read Fast Company, check out the cover story for Nov, 2003, about Russell Simmons. This is a person, while growing up, that most people would be screaming that he “didn’t have the same opportunities” that everyone else did. If you don’t know who he is, let’s just say he has done pretty good for himself. :)

Yes, I think deserved sounds more appropriate :) I have no golden ratio in mind. This is just an effort to mitigate the social and economic inequalities of capitalism. If you really must know, I'd like to abolish the system altogether, but a good liberal-capitalist moral principle, if you insist, can be found in political philosopher John Rawls: Income should be distributed in a way that's most favorable to the least advantaged.

Most people I know reflexively agree with that in principle (as a value). How to achieve it is another matter. I am perfectly willing to accept that we have different means to accomplish the same goals. This Rawlsian principle -- one of his famous two principles of justice -- is consistent, for instance, with Reagan's tax cut on the very, very wealthy because benefits trickle down. We can disagree as an empirical matter. But if you're arguing -- and some sentences suggest this -- that whatever the market decides is right, then I reject that view entirely.

I hope this is not too confusing or badly worded because I'm in a hurry.

Don’t worry, I have yet to meet a person with your beliefs that has been able to answer that question. ;)

Here’s the thing – while a lot of people think the system is unfair and think it should be changed, nobody has found a better system. Sure, the system isn’t perfect, but it does work, which is something that can’t be said for most others.

Nobody can answer the question, because it is unanswerable. You obviously know that “All slices should be equal” is a bad answer, yet you don’t like the system as it is. So your only answer is “somewhere between the way it is now and equal”, which, of course, is no answer at all.

As for John Rawls, I am not familiar with him. But it must be explained why he believes it should be distributed to the least advantaged (other than it gives people a warm fuzzy feeling to think that way) and exactly who he thinks the “least advantaged” are.

Actually, it really wouldn’t matter to me much (although I am interested in finding out those answers), because I noticed those two familiar words – income distribution. I’ve studied almost all of them and almost all of them fail. The main reason is that almost all of them go against human nature (the big reason Communism looks great on paper and the big thing Marx didn’t take into the equation.)

What do you mean "buying power"? No, that goes back to inflation.

No, not entirely. This is a pet peeve of mine that I see often. Too many people think inflation is the only factor in cost of living. It is not.

Look at the electronics market. For $200 bucks, I might have been able to buy a black and white, 13” TV 30 years ago. Now, for $200, I can buy a 27” color TV. Hell, it may even have a VCR thrown in. Inflation has nothing to do with that. My $200 has more buying power now than it did then.

Look at the price of gas. Even at the higher prices of today (around $1.60/gallon around here), gas is still cheaper today than it has been in 50 years.

Buying power is usually calculated on how many hours you need to work in order to afford [X].


I disagree that it's "useless" but I'll emphatically state that it's inconclusive. San Franciso to a mid-west town is a good comparison (because of housing prices in the Bay Area). Or we could compare Chicago to Tokoyo. But I don't think comparisons to the United States today to thirty years ago is all THAT bad.

I think you may have worded this wrong, but I think I understand your intention. But you have missed my point, the article didn’t compare incomes in the US to the US. The only mention (that I have seen) was that “the poor, in real terms, are poorer.” That is not an income comparison. The only income comparison was the direct comparison between the US and Sweden.

Again, as far as I know economists make simillar comparisons between income all the time. They're not useless.

Yes, economists will make similar comparisons, but they will do so in a context that is proper. My statement that it is useless is based on the fact that, in the context the author used this comparison, the data means nothing.

I remember looking at your chart and not seeing how you can claim this. Maybe I didn't understand it. It's only discussing poverty threshold. (A-1, right?) Well, again, you have to control for inflation. If the poverty line today 18,000 dollars for a family of X (or whatever), this doesn't mean they're rich by comparison to a similar family in the early 70s making $5,000. They're the same. Calculating rates of poverty need to be revamped regardless.

Actually, I was referring to the other charts that I mentioned previously, where I posted the topics from the table of contents, where it shows poverty is decreasing everywhere.

And sure, they can restructure the poverty level, but it will take another 10-20 years for that new standard to mean anything. And if they do, they should base it on buying power, expendable income, etc…

I'm not sure what to say on that company, or what it proves. The executives have taken pay cuts (and the workers will pay higher premiums).

According to many people that hold your same views, what happened at Compuware can never happen. But it did. If you look at who got cut, it was all the executives and the high paid workers. You notice that none of the lower paid workers took any cut at all, other than the medical premiums, which were across the board. The CEO took a 69% pay-cut himself!

What I was trying to show is that, while the huge layoffs and “screw the workers” scenarios get played out in the news all the time, things like this happen also. Compuware decided that it would rather piss off their high paid workers and have them take a pay-cut, then layoff all the lower end workers. According to many, this happening is as impossible as perpetual motion.

:D

Cain
29th October 2003, 01:24 PM
Can you cite references in your stats above? Everything I have seen shows wages going up across the board. Also, what most of these articles that refer to these stats in the fashion you have forget to mention is that inflation has been stagnant throughout much of that period.

See Paul Krugman's _Peddling Prosperity_ (published in 1994, I believe). In the later part of the 90s wage levels finally surpassed 1979, but were still below 1973 levels (controlling for inflation, of course).

No, it directly addresses your point. You have stated twice now that it isn’t fair that the lowest wage earners aren’t getting their “fair share”. You have side-stepped the issue of what that “fair share” is, so I have asked a direct question on what you feel is fair. Since you feel a person should get a share for their contribution to the wealth in this country, I assume you feel they should receive a share that is equal to their share of contribution.

Or do you feel they deserve a share that is more than their share of contribution?

I'm not sure what you're interested in or how many times I have to repeat it. People work longer now. Two-hundred or so more hours a year. Now, in the "boom" times (late 90s, early 2000) wages for the lower end of the spectrum remained flat. That is to say they didn't share in this prosperity -- which they're undeniably responsible for helping to create.


Ok, then place “equal” in front of all my opportunities. I still feel the same. I will be first to admit that it won’t be as easy for some people, but you there is nothing you can do about that, nor should there be.

But that's demonstrably false because it's not equal.

Here’s the thing – while a lot of people think the system is unfair and think it should be changed, nobody has found a better system. Sure, the system isn’t perfect, but it does work, which is something that can’t be said for most others.

Nobody can answer the question, because it is unanswerable. You obviously know that “All slices should be equal” is a bad answer, yet you don’t like the system as it is. So your only answer is “somewhere between the way it is now and equal”, which, of course, is no answer at all.

No, the problem is that you're seemingly looking for a specific, exact answer, and that's impossible and proves nothing. What's more, as I already implied, it's difficult -- if not impossible -- to finger a "fair" distribution in a *fundamentally* unfair system.

As for John Rawls, I am not familiar with him. But it must be explained why he believes it should be distributed to the least advantaged (other than it gives people a warm fuzzy feeling to think that way) and exactly who he thinks the “least advantaged” are.

John Rawls, the most important political philosopher since J.S. Mill, has written an entire book called the _Theory of Justice_ elaborating the underlying principles. Without straying any further, he uses the concept of the "veil of ignorance" to adduce the principle above. This scenario asks us to imagine that we are going to create a just society, but we're unaware of our characteristics. We don't know if we'll be smart, dumb, poor, rich, black, white, male, female, etc. Under these imaginary conditions, we figure that it would be wise (and against our self-interest) not to create a society that oppresses black people because we might be black. Or one that oppresses women (because you might be a woman). It's easy to see why people would want to create a society that adopts policies benefiting the least advantaged.

Look at the electronics market.

That's deflation.

the only mention (that I have seen) was that “the poor, in real terms, are poorer.”

Then you're misread it: "the very poor earn even less in real terms than they did then, and the largest share of the increase went to the richest Americans."

It's not saying that the poor are poorer.

Actually, I was referring to the other charts that I mentioned previously, where I posted the topics from the table of contents, where it shows poverty is decreasing everywhere.

So you were referring to this:

Poverty
4.1 Poverty for Most Races Has Declined Since 1959 .................................................. .................................................. ......... 45

In my previous objection I said the article starts from 1973, a high point in the business cycle (the scholarly practice is to compare peaks). 1959, which is before the publication of Michael Harrington's _The Other America_, the book that caused policy makers to focus on poverty (Great society)... so, yeah, of course poverty is down since then. But we're not even talking about that. We're talking about wages. (Shanek fondly, and repeatedly, posts a chart "proving" that government programs had the unintended effect of halting progress against poverty, even creating more of it). Simply stated, 1959 is inappropriate for comparison.


According to many people that hold your same views, what happened at Compuware can never happen. But it did. If you look at who got cut, it was all the executives and the high paid workers. You notice that none of the lower paid workers took any cut at all, other than the medical premiums, which were across the board. The CEO took a 69% pay-cut himself!

Again, I'm not impressed :) How fast did the CEO's pay accelerate until now? What about the workers? Most of their compensation comes in the form of stocks anyway.

DrChinese
29th October 2003, 01:31 PM
Originally posted by Suddenly
When I was doing corporate law, I was expected to bill at a minimum 1800 hours a year.

Some lawyers could bill that many in a summer.

(Har har har)

DrChinese
29th October 2003, 01:36 PM
As I understood it, the French government gave tax incentives to reduce the work week, hoping that business would add jobs to make up for the reduced hours per employee.

The French corporations - naturally - pocketed the tax savings and did very little new hiring. For them it was a win-win, but the government is not looking too sharp since their net tax receipts dropped by billions of dollars.

kittynh
29th October 2003, 03:21 PM
Well, nothing like all these wonderful devices for adding in the hours! Home computers, Blueberries, cell phones. I've been with Pool Boy driving to the airport and he's been on his 2 cell phones - one for International, one domestic. While waiting in the airport he's emailing, and basically keeping up with everything. He can't get away from work. Add that to his Navy Reserve work, and he barely has time to clean his thong and make me tropical drinks!

Things keep getting invented that are supposed to save us time, but instead are just another way to get us to work at home and even in the car.

The French work week makes problems for American companies that have offices there. The concept of "let's work until it's finished" doesn't go. When it comes to important conversion work that has to be done while the stores are closed...PoolBoy brings in Belgiums, Italians, Portugese, Germans - anyone but a Frenchman!

But yes, we work too much, but technology makes it possible....:rolleyes:

Diezel
31st October 2003, 07:23 AM
I haven't abandoned this thread, I just haven't had time to post any full responses (they tend to be long in this thread.) I will try to respond this weekend.