Captain.Sassy
24th September 2009, 09:25 AM
I'm really confused by this paper:
http://www.plosone.org/article/info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0004915
"In fact, if the vaccine-resistant strain has higher virulence than the vaccine-sensitive strain, the vaccination program is always effective, even though the program engenders the emergence of a vaccine-resistant strain. On the other hand, if the vaccine-resistant strain has lower virulence, we must carefully manage vaccination to prevent the spread of a vaccine-resistant strain."
Here's what I understand [after skimming two papers on strain replacement and part of the wikipedia article on the subject] and please please correct me where I’m wrong cause I’m trying to understand this:
Viruses compete, like any other organism (yeah they are barely life forms but they kind of are). Different strains of the same virus are in the same 'niche' and so compete with each other. If you are sick with one strain of the virus, it makes it harder for another strain of the virus to infect you (except I just learned today that this isn’t the case for dengue fever, and possibly H1N1 though the results aren’t conclusive on the latter).
Virulence is a measure of how quickly a virus (or strain of a virus) can reproduce itself and transmit itself. A virus that reproduces itself in your body more will make you sicker than a strain of the same virus that doesn't reproduce as much in your body. So usually (from what I gather) a more virulent virus will
- reproduce faster
- transmit from host to host faster
- make the hosts sicker
So generally, the more virulent strain of the virus is the stronger one, and will be the dominant one, since it infects more hosts and weaker strains can't take these hosts over. So when you vaccinate against a virus, vaccines are usually developed for the stronger strain. Vaccinated people get antibodies against that strain, and the strong strain is prevented from spreading. This gives a weaker strain an opportunity to spread.
This all seems to makes sense to me, but I must have missed something in the reasoning, which is what I want someone to sort out for me...
Cause I think that article I posted uses a mathematical model of an epidemic to model what happens when you vaccinate against a virus, and that model says that if you vaccinate against the more virulent virus, the less virulent strain of the virus can in fact cause a larger epidemic than the more virulent virus would have, without a vaccination program [though maybe I misread the paper].
If you are developing a vaccine against the dominant strain, wouldn't the dominant strain be the more virulent strain always? And if the strain you vaccinate against is more virulent than the strain that emerges after vaccination, don't you reduce the size of the epidemic? How can a less virulent strain infect more people than a more virulent strain?
Is there a way to intuitively understand the model in the paper in the kinds of terms I'm using (if I'm using terms wrong please correct me) or is the result they talk about an artefact of some very specific parameters in their model?
I'd be really thankful if anyone could answer this stuff for me. Sorry for spamming about vaccines today.
http://www.plosone.org/article/info:doi/10.1371/journal.pone.0004915
"In fact, if the vaccine-resistant strain has higher virulence than the vaccine-sensitive strain, the vaccination program is always effective, even though the program engenders the emergence of a vaccine-resistant strain. On the other hand, if the vaccine-resistant strain has lower virulence, we must carefully manage vaccination to prevent the spread of a vaccine-resistant strain."
Here's what I understand [after skimming two papers on strain replacement and part of the wikipedia article on the subject] and please please correct me where I’m wrong cause I’m trying to understand this:
Viruses compete, like any other organism (yeah they are barely life forms but they kind of are). Different strains of the same virus are in the same 'niche' and so compete with each other. If you are sick with one strain of the virus, it makes it harder for another strain of the virus to infect you (except I just learned today that this isn’t the case for dengue fever, and possibly H1N1 though the results aren’t conclusive on the latter).
Virulence is a measure of how quickly a virus (or strain of a virus) can reproduce itself and transmit itself. A virus that reproduces itself in your body more will make you sicker than a strain of the same virus that doesn't reproduce as much in your body. So usually (from what I gather) a more virulent virus will
- reproduce faster
- transmit from host to host faster
- make the hosts sicker
So generally, the more virulent strain of the virus is the stronger one, and will be the dominant one, since it infects more hosts and weaker strains can't take these hosts over. So when you vaccinate against a virus, vaccines are usually developed for the stronger strain. Vaccinated people get antibodies against that strain, and the strong strain is prevented from spreading. This gives a weaker strain an opportunity to spread.
This all seems to makes sense to me, but I must have missed something in the reasoning, which is what I want someone to sort out for me...
Cause I think that article I posted uses a mathematical model of an epidemic to model what happens when you vaccinate against a virus, and that model says that if you vaccinate against the more virulent virus, the less virulent strain of the virus can in fact cause a larger epidemic than the more virulent virus would have, without a vaccination program [though maybe I misread the paper].
If you are developing a vaccine against the dominant strain, wouldn't the dominant strain be the more virulent strain always? And if the strain you vaccinate against is more virulent than the strain that emerges after vaccination, don't you reduce the size of the epidemic? How can a less virulent strain infect more people than a more virulent strain?
Is there a way to intuitively understand the model in the paper in the kinds of terms I'm using (if I'm using terms wrong please correct me) or is the result they talk about an artefact of some very specific parameters in their model?
I'd be really thankful if anyone could answer this stuff for me. Sorry for spamming about vaccines today.