DrX512
28th September 2004, 06:08 PM
Lately, people whom I know have been telling me that there is something called a Binural Beat. A binural beat is any regular tone, but when played in stereo, one channel is a few Hz off as to create a Alpha, Beta, Theta or Delta tone. These tones induce different brain waves and all sorts of things which go with it. I personally think this is bull.
The website which all of my friends send me to for "scientific proof" is here (http://www.rainfall.com/cdroms/brainwave.htm). Apparantly, none of them realized that this website is trying to sell them a product, which is the reason it uses jargon and technical ideas which dont quite add up.
Honestly, I cannot believe any of this. Perhaps there are different states of mind labelled Alpha, Beta, Theta and Delta. Though as far as I am concerned, this was just an elaborate ploy. There has been no documented proof of such a phenomenon happening which is reliable and even available for me to find. So why should I believe it? They all claim that "It works so great! I was able to read four times as fast with almost complete comprehension" and "The Delta noise let me sleep for only two hours and it felt like twenty!" This does not seem like proof to me. For one, there is bias in the fact that these claims are annonymous due to them being over the internet. Secondly, the power of suggestion and placebo go a very long way in convincing the "Open Minded" people. I say that because when it does not work on me or others whom I have asked to listen to the sounds without telling them the supposed effects, they call me "Close Minded" in defense
Even the definition of the tones is flawed in a sense that it could not possibly be true. By having a difference of below 3.5 Hz, it would induce a deep, dreamless sleep. How could this possibly be true if there is no way for our ears to detect such a minute difference? There simply are not enough cilia inside of our inner ears to note the difference. Possibly a dog could, but a human's hearing could not be up to the task. Also, how often do you hear a sound more loudly in one ear than in another? Very often. This itself disproves all of these sounds because when you are hearing one sound in one ear and a different sound in another, then that should induce a certain state of mind if this conjecture were to be true.
Besides, this is promoted by a website that advocates psychics, psi. out of body experiences and others. Why the heck would I believe them then?
The website which all of my friends send me to for "scientific proof" is here (http://www.rainfall.com/cdroms/brainwave.htm). Apparantly, none of them realized that this website is trying to sell them a product, which is the reason it uses jargon and technical ideas which dont quite add up.
Honestly, I cannot believe any of this. Perhaps there are different states of mind labelled Alpha, Beta, Theta and Delta. Though as far as I am concerned, this was just an elaborate ploy. There has been no documented proof of such a phenomenon happening which is reliable and even available for me to find. So why should I believe it? They all claim that "It works so great! I was able to read four times as fast with almost complete comprehension" and "The Delta noise let me sleep for only two hours and it felt like twenty!" This does not seem like proof to me. For one, there is bias in the fact that these claims are annonymous due to them being over the internet. Secondly, the power of suggestion and placebo go a very long way in convincing the "Open Minded" people. I say that because when it does not work on me or others whom I have asked to listen to the sounds without telling them the supposed effects, they call me "Close Minded" in defense
Even the definition of the tones is flawed in a sense that it could not possibly be true. By having a difference of below 3.5 Hz, it would induce a deep, dreamless sleep. How could this possibly be true if there is no way for our ears to detect such a minute difference? There simply are not enough cilia inside of our inner ears to note the difference. Possibly a dog could, but a human's hearing could not be up to the task. Also, how often do you hear a sound more loudly in one ear than in another? Very often. This itself disproves all of these sounds because when you are hearing one sound in one ear and a different sound in another, then that should induce a certain state of mind if this conjecture were to be true.
Besides, this is promoted by a website that advocates psychics, psi. out of body experiences and others. Why the heck would I believe them then?