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Old 10th May 2012, 04:13 PM   #41
TSR
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Originally Posted by jadebox View Post
It would still be much easier to fake than an actual copyright registration. Plus, to use it you'd have to open the envelope, destroying your evidence.
... while creating another, more official paper trail and documentation of creation of the work in question.
Originally Posted by jadebox View Post
Another way to accomplish pretty much the same thing (that wouldn't have to be destroyed to be used), would be to photocopy the document then have the post office stamp the date on the copy for you. But, I don't know of any cases of that method being successfully used in a court either.
I don't know where you live, but Post Offices around here are not in the business of stamping arbitrary photocopies. A notary might come close, but they do not, generally speaking, read the document they are notarizing -- merely documenting that it was signed in their presence by the person they record as having done.
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Old 10th May 2012, 04:17 PM   #42
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Forget about it. Worrying about copyright for a script is an exercise in futility. Nobody's going to copy it and even if they did, a typical script is modified by everyone and their dog before it gets to production so it's highly unlikely you could prove a breach. Indeed, most US production companies will insist you sign a disclaimer before they read the script saying you won't sue them under any circumstance so your copyright is moot. I don't have experience of actors reading scripts but I wouldn't be surprised if the same is true. Honestly, don't waste your time and money, just get it out there to as many relevant people as you can.
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Old 11th May 2012, 09:21 AM   #43
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Originally Posted by TSR View Post
... while creating another, more official paper trail and documentation of creation of the work in question.

I don't know where you live, but Post Offices around here are not in the business of stamping arbitrary photocopies. A notary might come close, but they do not, generally speaking, read the document they are notarizing -- merely documenting that it was signed in their presence by the person they record as having done.
No, there won't be documentation because a "poor man's copyright' wouldn't be accepted by the court case in the first place. And, yes, the post office will date stamp a photocopy for you, but that technique wouldn't hold in court either.

Registering a copyright is easy, inexpensive, and ... effective. The other things won't work.

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Old 11th May 2012, 06:03 PM   #44
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Originally Posted by tomwaits View Post
I still don't understand. What is mailing yourself the material going to do? There's no evidence that it has ever worked, and in order to file suit in court you'd have to be registered anyway, so there's absolutely no point. You might as well do nothing. There is zero gain in mailing yourself the material and all the gain in the world by registering.

Having a historic record of multiple different drafts and versions is actually far more compelling evidence of original ownership that copyright registration. It's pretty easy to file a false registration. Faking the development of intellectual property from initial conception to final product is much, much more difficult.
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Old 11th May 2012, 07:19 PM   #45
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Originally Posted by gumboot View Post
Having a historic record of multiple different drafts and versions is actually far more compelling evidence of original ownership that copyright registration. It's pretty easy to file a false registration. Faking the development of intellectual property from initial conception to final product is much, much more difficult.
Again, in the US copyright registration is prima facie evidence of copyright. Not only that, but to take legal action for copyright violation you are required under US law to be registered. Having records of drafts is nice, sure. But doing the "poor man's copyright" instead of registering is just plain foolish, and any attorney who says otherwise is begging for a malpractice suit.

Seriously, has any evidence been provided that this method has worked in a US court of law in any way? All I've seen so far is that somebody's friend may or may not have used it in negotiations for a settlement, which means nothing. We have no idea what the case was, who they were, or why they settled. There could be a million reasons why the case was settled. Give me a statute or a judicial opinion that talks about it, and then we might be getting somewhere.
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